Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 23:59
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Why do all the stupid people think Donald J. Trump is stupid?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
He led George W. Bush's PEPFAR program to stop AIDS. Now he fears for its future - NPR
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.